Preterism's 5 smooth stones


 

 Remember the story of David vs Goliath? Remember how David moved with belief in God? 


It only took one, but any one of those 5 smooth stones would have taken Goliath down (1st Samuel 17:20-49); the same holds true for the 5 scriptures listed below, and their ability to answer the question: 


"Have all things been placed under his feet"? 

1st Corinthians 15:27 “for he has put all things under his feet. But when he says all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him”


Is Paul lying again here when he says “has put all things under his feet”?

 
Ephesians 1:22 “And has put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church”

 
Is Paul lying again here when he says “has put all things under his feet”?

 
Hebrews 2:8 “you have put all things in subjection under his feet. For in that he put all in subjection under him, he left nothing that is not put under him. But now we see not yet all things put under him”

 
Is Paul lying again here when he says “has put all things under his feet”?


The ending of this verse "But now we see not yet all things put under him" is where many suggest this is not a reality as of yet, because "we don't see it" in our physical world.


I question this line of reasoning: in addition to all 5 of these verses; and speaking specifically to this "we don't see it" as evidence this has not happened yet.


If visible evidence is required for reality to be true, do we see a visible God? This same line of reasoning would suggest indeed, there is no God, because "we don't see him". 


Consider also:

 
John 17:2 “As you have given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as you have given him”


This is Christ stating that the Father had already given him power over all flesh, so would all flesh not include his enemies? 

What flesh is not part of all flesh? Was Christ lying when he said this?
 
Matthew 28:18 “and Jesus came and spoke unto them, saying, all power is given unto me in heaven and in earth”


This is Christ just prior to his ascension, as he stated that he had already been given all power in heaven and in earth; so what power is excluded from this? 

What realm (other than heaven or earth) contained power that was not subject to Christ? 

Did Christ lie again here?

Here's 5 scriptures you have to change the clearly written message of, and I need not alter, change or redefine one word.




One additional scripture I'll share to help this point along


Colossians 2:9 and you have been given fullness in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority.


How can this possibly be confusing?


As David moved forward, armed with the word of God, he defeated his enemy; by going to that Cross and being the word of God, Christ clearly demonstrated that the last enemy (DEATH - 1st Corinthians 15:26) had been defeated. 


How? 


He rose from the dead, because death could not hold (keep) him (Acts 2:23-24).


Or our faith is in vain, and we of all, are most miserable.


© 2012 J. W. Bowers Jr. 

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